Baptismal Efficacy: A Catechetical Presentation, Pt. 2

2. Since the sacraments are effectual “only when received in faith,” does that mean Baptism does nothing for the person who does not believe?

Actually, I never said: Faith is necessary for the sacraments to be effectual. What I said was: Faith is necessary for the sacraments to be effectual “unto salvation.” That’s an important difference.

Every time a person is baptized he receives something from God—and that "something" is always good, and always beneficial—even if the person does not believe. In fact, we can see that by what Paul said about circumcision, which was the Old Testament equivalent to Baptism.

After telling his readers that being circumcised in the flesh was no guarantee of a circumcised heart (Rom. 2:28-29), he anticipated their objection: “What advantage then hath the Jew? Or what profit is there in circumcision?" Paul’s answer is unambiguous. He says: “Much in every way!” (Rom. 3:1-2).

In context, this means if a man was circumcised and perished in the end, he only had himself to blame. No one could say that God had failed to provide him with everything he needed to be saved. To say such a thing would imply that God was the “unfaithful” party in their relationship. And of course, that would be a slanderous lie:

  • “For what if some did not believe? Will their unbelief make the faithfulness of God of none effect? Certainly not! Indeed, let God be true but every man a liar” (Rom. 3:3-4)!

I believe the same thing applies to Baptism. Those who are baptized profit “much in every way” even if they continue in unbelief. Objectively speaking, God has given them everything they need to be saved so that if they perish, they will only have themselves to blame.

This means that the sacraments are always effectual in one way or another. Since Baptism puts us in a real covenant relationship with Jesus Christ, it will either result in our salvation or the *increase of our judgment before God, for to whom much is given, much is required.[1] In either case, we cannot say that Baptism does nothing for those who do not believe.  


Notes:

[1] This is what we might call the principle of proportionality, and Jesus used it in Luke 12:48 to show why some men will receive greater punishment than others on the Day of Judgment (cf. Mt. 11:20-24; Heb. 10:22, 28-29).

Baptismal Efficacy: A Catechetical Presentation, Pt. 1

One of the things I keep hearing from friends and Facebook friends alike is, Paul, I’m confused about what you’re actually saying about Baptism.

The more I think about it, that can be an indication that in my recent attempts to articulate my position,[1] I haven’t been as clear as I’ve tried to be. Another possibility is that some of the things I’m saying are new and unfamiliar, and those who are trying to understand me simply lack the necessary theological categories to process my material. 

Whatever the case may be, I have a desire to make myself as clear as possible. As a pastor, it’s my job to make sure that my teaching is understood by all. True, I can’t make people agree with me, but if they go away disagreeing with what I’m not saying, I’ll be the only one to blame.  

In this series, I want to explain my position on Baptismal Efficacy as clearly and forthrightly as I can. To help with that, I'll be presenting this material in “catechetical” form. First, I will pose the most pressing and relevant questions, and then proceed to answer those questions to the best of my ability.

Questions About Baptismal Efficacy

1. You have said that the sacraments are “effectual means of salvation.” Where did you get that terminology from and what exactly does it mean?

I get this terminology directly from the Westminster Standards. In Question 91 of the Shorter Catechism, we read: “The sacraments become effectual means of salvation not from any virtue in them, or in him that doth administer them, but only by the blessing of Christ and the working of his Spirit in them that by faith receive them.”

In order to grasp this, you have to know what it means to say that something is a “means of grace.” In simple terms, a means is a medium, instrument, or vehicle through which something is communicated. To be clear then, I affirm that God communicates the benefits of redemption to us through various appointed means, including the preaching of the word and the administration of the sacraments.[2]

It’s important to keep in mind, however, that in the sacraments (just like the word) God's grace is communicated in an objective manner. In order for it to become effectual unto salvation, the recipient must receive it by faith.

  • To state it concisely: Baptism is an objective means by which God communicates His grace, and Faith is the subjective means by which that grace is received. 

The basis for this position can be seen in two examples from Scripture. In Hebrews 4:2, we learn that much of the Exodus generation perished in the wilderness but not because God withheld His grace from the people (indeed they all heard the preaching of the word). Rather, the people perished because they didn’t receive it by faith: “The word preached did not profit them, not being mixed with faith in them that heard it.” 

The same thing can be seen with Baptism. When a baptized person fails to obtain salvation, the reason is not that God somehow withheld His grace. The problem is that the person did not receive what God had given him by the hand of faith. This is why Jesus said, “He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved, but he that believeth not shall be damned.” 

So, yes, I believe that in and through Baptism there is always a real and objective giving or communication of saving grace. But it is only when we receive it by faith that we can benefit from it in a saving way. This is what we might call the “objective-subjective paradigm,” or as other theologians might prefer, the “gift-reception paradigm” of Holy Baptism:

“In baptism, God offers, and we receive; God promises, and we believe; God acts, and we respond. God wraps up the gift of Christ in the means of grace; we receive and open the gift by faith.”[3]


Notes

[1] To get an idea of what I’ve been saying on this subject, see HERE for my article and HERE for the podcast interview about my article.

[2] Question 85 of the Westminster Shorter Catechism says: “To escape the wrath and curse of God due to us for sin, God requireth of us faith in Jesus Christ, repentance unto life, with the diligent use of all the outward means whereby Christ communicateth to us the benefits of redemption.” In Question 88, it says: “The outward and ordinary means whereby Christ communicates to us the benefits of redemption are his ordinances, especially the word, sacraments, and prayer; all which are made effectual to the elect for salvation.”

[3] Rich Lusk, Baptismal Efficacy and Baptismal Latency: A Sacramental Dialogue, found HERE. It is clear that Lusk is saying nothing different from what Calvin taught when he said: “From this sacrament, as from all others, we gain nothing, except insofar as we receive in faith.” John Calvin and Henry Beveridge, Institutes of the Christian Religion, vol. 3 (Edinburgh: The Calvin Translation Society, 1845), 339.

Water Baptism in John 3:5?

OBJECTION: When Jesus said that a man must be born of water and the Spirit, his statement had nothing to do with baptism. The water was just a metaphor about the need for cleansing.

ANSWER: The larger context of our Lord's statement is against this interpretation. In the background of his reference to water and the Spirit was the fact that, up to this point, Nicodemus and the rest of the Pharisees had rejected the baptism of John (cf. Lk. 7:30; 20:1-8). In fact, baptism seems to be one of the major themes of the first several chapters of the Gospel of John:

  • In chapter 1, John the Baptist comes baptizing with real water. His main message is that although he himself only applies the water, it is actually Jesus who applies the Holy Spirit (cf. Mt. 3:11).

  • In chapter 2, Jesus puts water into the six stone waterpots that were used for Jewish baptisms, that is, Old Testament purification rites. Then, he turns that water into wine (a symbol of his blood) to show that, in baptism, our sins are washed away by the blood of Christ.

  • In chapter 3, Jesus tells Nicodemus that all the Pharisees must be born of water and the Spirit. This is why he speaks in the plural in verse 7. He does not say: "You must be born again" but rather "Ye must be born again." This refers back to their rejection of John's baptism.

But baptism doesn't just occupy the context prior to our Lord's Statement. It continues to be the primary subject in view even after it. In fact, right after the conversation with Nicodemus, the narrative continues with instances and controversies regarding baptism (v. 22ff). In this case, John's disciples broke out into an open dispute regarding the topic of "purification" (v. 25). Why? Because they saw that Jesus was also beginning to baptize (v. 26).

  • In chapter 4, we see another reference to baptism with the woman at the well. In verses 1-4 we see that the baptizing activity of Christ was also rejected by the Pharisees, so he left Judea and went to Samaria. There, he told the woman that drinking the water that he provides leads to eternal life.

Interestingly, the reference to drinking points us back to the waterpots in John chapter 2, reminding us that those who drink the water that Jesus gives are cleansed by his sacrificial blood. But there is more. The cleansing takes place by his blood and Spirit, both of which we drink when we are baptized. For as Paul says: "By one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit" (1 Cor. 12:13).

What Does Baptism Accomplish?

After going back and retracing my studies on the question of baptismal efficacy, I can confidently say that there are both objective and subjective elements involved. Here is what I found:

I. On the objective side, baptism is the means by which a person becomes a Christian. This seems incontrovertible since it serves as the rite of initiation whereby a person is united to Christ and enters the discipleship process. "For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body" (1 Cor. 12:13). “Go, therefore, and disciple the nations [by] baptizing them and [by] teaching them to observe all things I have commanded you” (Mat. 28:19).

But this is no small thing. Already we are dealing with a radical, life-changing experience that takes place every time a person is baptized. In this sense, we can say that baptism is effectual in the same way that a wedding ceremony is effectual: it always accomplishes what it's designed to accomplish.

When a man and his fiancé show up on their wedding day, they always come in as two single individuals. But by the time they leave they are united together in the holy estate of marriage. By virtue of the wedding ceremony, their identities have been changed in real and significant ways. Each of them now has a new set of concrete relationships—not just with one another but with countless other people as well. Together they have new privileges and new responsibilities. Today, they can do things that were morally unacceptable just the day before.

While marriage is not a sacrament, it gives us a good picture of how baptism works: Baptism is a divine ceremony, a God-ordained ritual act that changes the objective status and identity of the person who is baptized. Like the newlywed, he has now been grafted into a new set of relationships and circumstances, the difference being that he now has access to all the privileges and responsibilities of the Covenant of Grace. Thus, the most important point to see here is that, like the wedding ceremony, the baptismal rite always does exactly what it's designed to do, and there is no exception to the rule.

II. But that’s not all that happens in baptism, there is also a subjective side to consider. If we wish to take the Bible seriously, we must affirm that in baptism there is a sovereign communication of salvific blessings to the person baptized. Among these are regeneration (Tit. 3:5), the washing away of sins (Acts 22:16), and the giving of the Holy Spirit (Acts 2:38). And though this is where a lot of people stumble, we have to be very firm about what the Bible actually teaches. Therefore, regardless of whatever previous theological commitments one may have, the most important thing about “doing theology” is that he remains faithful to the Word of God. His job is to follow Scripture no matter where he thinks it might lead. As I've tried to do that, here are three propositions I feel bound to affirm:

  • First, it is unmistakably clear that the saving benefits of Jesus Christ are, in fact, delivered to us in Holy Baptism.

This is something that is so clearly stated that we should avoid every temptation and resist every inclination to undermine the force of the biblical language. For example, when the Jews asked Peter what they should do about their participation in the murder of Christ, he commanded them: Repent and be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ, specifically, “for the forgiveness of your sins.” Then, in the very same breath, he told them: "And you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit” (Acts 2:38).

Truly, if all we had was this one passage, the teaching would be clear and secure. But we have many other passages that speak in similar terms. When Ananias was preparing to baptize Paul, he said: "Arise and be baptized and wash away your sins” (Acts 22:16). Later, Paul himself went on to describe the act of baptism as the "washing of regeneration and renewing of the Holy Spirit” (Tit. 3:5).

These passages should be left just the way they are, rather than explained away. In the latter one, the term "washing" is λουτροῦ and literally means "laver"—referring to the vessel in which ceremonial washings take place. Thus, when Paul uses this word he is saying that the baptismal font is the "laver of regeneration" or the place where new life in Christ is received.

  • Second, it is unmistakably clear that a man can receive these salvific blessings before he is actually baptized.

Naturally, this proposition might throw some people for a loop. And yet, that's exactly what the Bible teaches. This, too, must be accepted and accounted for in whatever theological system we are seeking to build from the Word of God. Just as we should take the previous passages at face value, so we should take these at face value as well.

As Cornelius was listening to the preaching of the Word by Peter, the Bible says he received the gift of the Holy Spirit right then and there (Acts 10:43, 44). Then, in response to that event, Peter asked: “Can anyone forbid water, that these should not be baptized who have received the Holy Spirit just as we have?” (v. 47).

Here we see that the Holy Spirit was given to Cornelius, not in his baptism but prior to it. According to the text, he received the Spirit through the preaching of the Word alone! This is something that many people experience. That's why Peter could later say: You were born again "through the word of God” (1 Pet. 1:23). And that's why Paul could say to the Galatians: "This only would I learn from you: Did you receive the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith?" (Gal. 3:2).

Now, as we gather the biblical data and put these two propositions together, it raises an important question: Does this mean that when Cornelius was baptized his baptism was nothing more than a "symbol" of what he already experienced? Or, as a friend of mine recently put it: If a person has already been regenerated, and his sins have been washed away, and he has received the gift of the Holy Spirit, what exactly is there left for him to receive in his baptism?

To this question, I think we can say: Much in every way! In fact, I think we can even say that a man like Cornelius still receives these (and other) salvific blessings in and through his baptism.

Notice that in my statement above I said that in baptism there is a sovereign communication of salvific blessings to the person baptized. The word “sovereign” is important here because it not only means that God can communicate His blessings whenever, wherever, however, and upon whomsoever He pleases (that's certainly true); but even more simply it means that God is able to differentiate between what a man has, and what a man needs. On that basis, He blesses each person according to his individual need. Essentially, this translates into saying that the experience of the grace of God varies from person to person, and this brings us to the final proposition.

  • Third, it is unmistakably clear that the same saving benefits can be given to, and received by, the very same person on more than one occasion.

Here, since we're talking specifically about regeneration, the washing away of sins, and the giving of the Holy Spirit, this last proposition should be established by three more points, one for each of the blessings in view.

  • First, the Bible uses the term “regeneration” in both objective and subjective senses (compare Mat. 19:28 and Tit. 3:5). But even in its subjective sense, when it refers to the inward work of the Holy Spirit, regeneration is a continuum. This means it begins with the definitive transformation we call “conversion” and continues with the progressive transformation we call “renewal.”

In fact, it’s very possible that both of these dimensions appear side by side in Titus 3:5. It may be that the “washing of regeneration” and “renewing of the Holy Spirit” are two sides of the same coin. It's possible that there is an overlapping relationship between the two so that Paul is referring to one and the same thing from two different vantage points.

In either case, the term Paul uses for “renewing” in that passage is ἀνακαινώσεως, and he uses it elsewhere to describe the ongoing process of spiritual renovation in the life of the Christian. Note that it's to Christians that he says: Put off the old man, put on the new man, "and be renewed (ἀνανεοῦσθαι) in the spirit of your minds” (Eph. 4:22, 23). Likewise, it's to Christians that he says: "Be transformed by the renewing (ἀνακαινώσει) of your minds” (Rom. 12:2). This demonstrates that the work of regeneration, which indeed begins at the point of our conversion, continues on in the lifelong process of renewal or “progressive sanctification.”

But how does that relate to baptism? The answer is easy: Even if a person has already been regenerated (in the sense of conversion) by the preaching of the Word, he can still be regenerated (in the sense of renewal) by the sacrament of Holy Baptism. In this case, the person baptized receives "grace upon grace" even from the fullness of Jesus Christ (Jn. 1:16).

  • Second, the same thing can be said about the washing away of sins—namely, that it is not a one-time occurrence, but a repeatable saving grace in the life of the believer.

Certainly, there is the initial washing that takes place at conversion, but Scripture also teaches that after conversion we have an ongoing need for spiritual cleansing. In fact, Jesus himself made this distinction when he told Peter that even after a man has received the (definitive) washing of his head, he is still in need of the (continual) washing of his feet (Jn. 13:6-11)!

To add to this, we might also note that if the washing away of our sins is but a one-time event, never to be repeated again, then Jesus would not have commanded his disciples to pray for the daily forgiveness of their sins in the Lord's Prayer (Mat. 6:12). Nor would the apostle John have spoken in the present tense when he declared: "But if we walk in the light as He is in the light, we have fellowship with one another and the blood of Jesus Christ His Son cleanses us from all sin” (1 Jn. 1:7). In the next two verses, he adds: “If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. If we confess our sins, He is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness” (vv. 8-9)!

But again, how does that relate to baptism? The answer is the same as before: Even if a man has already been washed from his sins at the time of his conversion, he can still be washed again at the time of his baptism. Going back to what I said before, this is why Ananias, speaking to the newly but already converted Paul, could still say: “And now why are you waiting? Arise and be baptized, and wash away your sins” (Acts 22:16)!

  • Finally, what about the giving of the Holy Spirit? Is that also a repeatable grace? The answer is, Yes, and we can understand this in the same way as the others since we also see different aspects of this gift in the Bible.

At one time, we are "sealed with the Holy Spirit of promise” (Eph. 1:13). At another time, God might “give us the Spirit of wisdom and revelation in the knowledge of Him” (Eph. 1:17). At another time still, like a Father giving good gifts to his children, Jesus says: "He gives the Holy Spirit to those who ask Him” (Lk. 11:13). What this shows us is that the receiving of the Holy Spirit is not a one-time occurrence in the life of the believer. It certainly happens at his conversion but it, too, is a repeatable blessing that he experiences again and again throughout the course of his life.

By this time, the position should be well-established in our minds. Just like we saw with other saving benefits, the gift of the Holy Spirit is also delivered to us in Holy Baptism—and not just to those who have not yet received Him. Rather we can say that He is given to every man who believes and is baptized, according to his individual need.

To say it differently: just because a person has received the Holy Spirit doesn't mean that there is now nothing left of the Holy Spirit for God to give him. Instead, we can say that God gives to such a man a new and fresh filling of the Spirit when He baptizes him into Christ. Truly then, there is nothing inconsistent with saying that such a man receives another filling, another cleansing, and another measure of regenerating grace for godly living!

Access Granted: Studies on Covenant Communion, Pt. 5

As we come to the fifth and final objection against child participation in the Passover meal, we immediately recognize its close connection with Objection # 2 (Admission to the Passover Required Catechesis). That’s because there are two distinct but related claims associated with the Lord’s attendance at the feast as recorded in Luke 2. The first is about its timing (Jesus was twelve) and the second is about its purpose (he went to take his catechetical exam).

Therefore, in view of the overlap with Exodus 12:26, I’ll need to address both of these claims in this post. In preparation for that, here is the initial passage (Lk. 2:41-42) we will consider:

// His parents went to Jerusalem every year at the Feast of the Passover. And when He was twelve years old, they went up to Jerusalem according to the custom of the feast //

Objections & Answers

5.  Jesus Attended Passover at the Age of Twelve

In his online publication entitled, Jesus’ First Passover (found here), Reverend Jim West presents an interesting case against child participation. In the main, his argument rests on the claim that, according to Luke 2:41-42, Jesus himself never attended Passover before the age of twelve. 

However, with as many supporting points as he presents in this work, I would argue that his overall case is inconclusive for at least three reasons: 1) The inference he makes from the text is logically invalid, 2) The interpretation he renders is not required by the grammar, and 3) The evidence he offers is extra-biblical and therefore non-authoritative. 

From Focus to Fact

Anyone who’s been involved with Christian apologetics knows that one of the favorite tactics of unbelievers is to present the Bible in a way that makes the writers look like they contradict each other. For example, since Matthew says two women came to the empty tomb and Mark says there were three, the unbeliever sees a blatant contradiction. 

However, such a conclusion is a major slip in logic. The fact that Matthew mentions only two out of the three women is not the same as denying that there were three. To be a formal contradiction, he would’ve had to say that “only” two women came to the tomb—but, of course, he didn’t say that.

By way of analogy, Reverend West commits a similar error in his argument against paedocommunion. He too makes an unjustified leap from the focus of a writer to the facts of the case, not realizing that these are not the same thing. He assumes that when Luke says Mary and Joseph went up to Passover every year, it can only mean that Jesus never went with them. Notice how he draws that inference on pages 12 and 13:

// The Lucan account says that his parents went up to Passover every year (Luke 2:41). The focus here is upon their going—not his. They (not he) went up to the Passover every year //

// They went up annually, but the silence suggests that Jesus did not //

In no uncertain terms, Reverend West deduces the absence of Jesus from the presence of his parents. But just like in the case with the women at the tomb, this is a major slip in logic and should be answered in exactly the same way: The fact that Luke only mentions Joseph and Mary is not the same as denying that Jesus was there.

From Grammar to Interpretation

But what about the grammar? Reverend West also argues that there’s an obvious grammatical contrast between the attendance of Mary and Joseph (v. 41) and the attendance of Jesus himself (v. 42). To do this, he appeals to the Greek term, ginomai, which means: was, came to be, or even, began to be. On page 13, he writes: 

// Ginomai is translated “was” when the real import of the verb is became. Thus, the implication of ginomai in Luke 2:42 is clear: Jesus’ becoming twelve was the reason they took him to Passover // 

There are several difficulties with this conclusion, two of which I’ll mention in passing: 

  • First, no matter how we translate ginomai, the term itself is connected to the age of Jesus, not to his attendance. In other words, the text says “when Jesus began to be twelve” not “when Jesus began to attend the feast.”

  • Second, no matter how we translate ginomai, the grammar is not as forceful as suggested. Notice that Reverend West wants the statement to be causal rather than simply temporal. He asserts that the “reason” Joseph and Mary took Jesus up to Jerusalem is that he “became” twelve, when the truth is that ginomai is preceded by hote which is known as the adverb of time. Thus, we have a classic case of confusing our interpretation of the grammar with the grammar itself.[1]

From Scripture to Tradition

Admittedly, one of the best parts of West’s publication is the section in which he makes the connection between the ages of Jesus (mentioned in the New Testament) and the requirements of God’s law. The problem, however, is that he takes a true and frequent occurrence and then presents it as an absolute rule. On page 9, he writes:

// Every time an age is predicated of him, it is in relationship to God’s law //

In this section, West provides a number of examples from the Bible, all of which are good. He reminds us that Jesus was circumcised at eight days old because that’s what God required (Lk. 2:21; Gen. 17:12). He was presented at forty days old because that’s what God required (Lk. 2:22-24; Lev. 12:1-8). He was baptized at thirty years old because, again, that’s what God required (Lk. 3:23; Num. 4:1-3).

Unfortunately, right when we’re ready to learn that Jesus first went to the Passover at the age of twelve because that’s what God required, West fails to deliver. Knowing that there is no such law or command in Scripture, he goes back and carefully restates his initial argument in completely different terms. On Page 10, he writes:

// Thus everything that Jesus did conformed to Old Testament law and custom. Whenever his age is affirmed, it is directly or indirectly linked to the Torah //

Now for the record, I have no problem with hearing and evaluating arguments grounded in church tradition. What I do have a problem with is the sleight of hand that we see here. I have a problem with arguments that start off sounding like biblical arguments, only to find that somewhere along the line the writer has led me off the path.

By the time we get to page 14, we realize that the whole publication is a string of inconclusive scriptural arguments and that these arguments can only be received as conclusive when they’re viewed through the lens of Jewish custom. In my mind, that just means the arguments themselves are ultimately inconclusive.

What About Tradition?

But what about tradition? Shouldn’t we at least consider the argument from Jewish custom? After all, Luke does say that they went up to the feast according to the “custom” of their day, right? Well, yes, but there are a few things that we should keep in mind:

  • First, even if the custom of Jesus’ day was such that women and children were excluded from the Passover meal, it does not follow that such a practice must continue as a pattern for the church today.

  • Second, it is disputable whether such a custom even existed in Jesus’ day, rendering the argument itself anachronistic. Something is anachronistic when it attributes a custom, event, or object to a period of time to which it does not belong. 

To appreciate this second point, one should note that the particular “custom” that is often assumed in this connection is the Jewish practice of pre-bar mitzvah. On page 15 of his publication, West writes: 

// The first Passover of Christ, in which He did not take part, anticipated his impending Bar Mitzvah one year later //

To substantiate this statement, West appeals to the Scottish Presbyterian theologian and historian, Alfred Edersheim (A.D. 1825-1889). Yet judging by the footnotes Edersheim provides (found here), we see that he was depending on other sources to substantiate his own statements; sources which include the Babylonian Talmud (A.D. 200-500) and the medieval Jewish historian, Maimonides (A.D. 1138–1204). 

This poses an obvious dilemma—Who gets to decide which historical sources are right and which are wrong?

Every Bible-believing Christian knows that, unlike the writers of Holy Scripture, the voices of history often contradict each other—which fact alone should remind us that no matter who we're talking about historiography is always a presuppositional discipline. 

To press the point, I could ask a very simple question—namely: What if we decide that, instead of Maimonides, we want to listen to Josephus, who tells us that long before the time of Christ women and children did participate in Passover? I know one thing for sure; we would come to a completely different conclusion about the question at hand.

In his, Antiquities of the Jews (11.4.8, found here), Josephus writes:

// As the feast of unleavened bread was at hand, in the first month, all the people ran together out of the villages to the city, and celebrated the festival, having purified themselves with their wives and children, and offered the sacrifice which was called the Passover, on the fourteenth day of the same month, and feasted seven days // 

Now for a better application, let’s ask another question: What if we decide that, instead of accepting the research of Jim West, we want to accept the research of James Jordan, who cites a number of other historical sources to show that Bar Mitzvah didn’t even exist in New Testament times? Again, we'd come away with a different conclusion.

In his, Children and the Religious Meals of the Old Creation,[2] Jordan writes:

// Jesus’ appearance in the Temple at age twelve is sometimes linked with the bar mitzvah rituals of later Judaism. No such ritual custom existed in Jesus' day, however, and nothing in the text hints that this was the first time Jesus had ever been to Jerusalem to a feast. Moreover, Jewish children participate in Passover long before bar mitzvah! The writings of the rabbis give strong indication that children participated in the Passover meal at the time of Christ. See Christian L. Keidel, “Is the Lord's Supper for Children?” Westminster Theological Journal 37, no. 3 (1975): 314ff, and Tim Gallant, Feed My Lambs: Why the Lord’s Table Should be Restored to Covenant Children (Grande Prairie, AB: Pactum Reformanda Pub., 2002), 56ff //

In view of such discrepancies, one begins to appreciate the Reformed emphasis on the testimony of Holy Scripture as our highest and only infallible rule for faith and practice. Since the Bible is the inspired word of God, we must ultimately look to it alone to prove all doctrinal points and resolve all disagreements of a traditional or historical nature.

According to the Westminster Confession of Faith 1:10, “The supreme judge by which all controversies of religion are to be determined, and all decrees of councils, opinions of ancient writers, doctrines of men, and private spirits, are to be examined, and in whose sentence we are to rest, can be no other but the Holy Spirit speaking in the Scripture.”

I do hope it’s clear by now, at least to those who’ve been following my blog, that this is the principle I’m seeking to apply in this series. Historical testimony is often very helpful to the student of Scripture and Church History; but as the Confession reminds us, it is not something that we can ever rest in.[3]

Exposing Presuppositions

In this last section, I want to address the alleged purpose of Jesus’ attendance at the Passover. According to Reverend West, Jesus was taken up to Jerusalem so that, in keeping with the custom of his day, he might take (and pass!) his catechetical examination before the elders of the church.

Apparently, when Mary and Joseph found Jesus in the Temple “hearing and asking questions” this was Luke’s way of telling us that he was engaged in the customary, pre-confirmation interview that was normative in his day.

Consider the following statements from pages 20 and 21:

// Jewish history informs us that it was common during the ‘minor festival days’ after the Paschal lamb was eaten for the doctors to theologize and for the young to participate. Jesus was not teaching the doctors of the Law. They were interviewing him. Luke’s description is parallel to the modern practice of interviewing a catechumen when he is examined by the elders of the church prior to his first communion. In short, Jesus appeared in Jerusalem not as a wonder-child, but as a catechumen //

Now, from what’s already been said above, it should be clear that such an analysis, being grounded in the testimony of extra-biblical sources, is less than sure. But even that is not the biggest problem associated with this interpretation. The real difficulty is figuring out what to do with the other salient details of the text itself. Or, to put it into question form, we could ask: If what Jesus was doing in the temple was according to custom (i.e. if it really was his confirmation interview), then why didn’t his parents know where he was?[4]

Our knee-jerk reaction is to say that such a question seems too simple and too obvious to carry any force. But oftentimes it’s the obvious things that slip right past us if we’re not careful with our steps. So the question is a good one and it needs to be considered. If Joseph and Mary brought Jesus to Jerusalem specifically for his interview with the elders, then why were they so frantic when he showed up missing right at the appointed time? And even after they found him in the temple, Why were they still so confused?

Unfortunately, Reverend West makes no attempt at answering these questions, probably because they pose a direct challenge to the presuppositional factors at play in his analysis. I realize that saying such a thing could be offensive, but I’m only saying what I perceive to be the case.

And even if I’m wrong, and West is completely unaware of any presuppositional commitments he has, that still doesn’t prove that he doesn't have them. Nor does it mean that other men, who hold the same position and utilize the same interpretation as he does, are unaware of theirs. 

For example, in his online article entitled, What Mean Ye (found here), Dr. Richard Bacon openly acknowledges that because of a pre-commitment to a certain theological “model” he comes to the text with an “expectation” to find what he needs to find.

After concluding that Jesus was “involved in what we would today call a catechism class,” Dr. Bacon makes a startling admission:

// Our model caused us to expect that in the case of children being admitted to the Passover we would see prior or contemporary catechetical instruction. That is precisely what we find in the New Testament, even in the case of our Lord // (p 13) 

Without question, this statement amounts to an admission of eisegesis. And for those who aren’t familiar with this term, eisegesis is the process of interpreting a text in such a way as to introduce one's own presuppositions, agendas, or biases. It is the act of reading into the text what you want the text to say, rather than deriving and discovering from the text (all and only) what is already there. 

What’s Up Next?

So far, I’ve been focusing on the foundational question of child participation in the Passover and in doing so I first presented a positive case from Exodus 12 and then addressed the five most common objections to our interpretation. Every time, I overturned those objections by a simple demonstration of the Scripture itself. If you want to go back and review any of those posts, you can use the following list for easy navigation: 

  • PART ONE: Introduction (here)

  • PART TWO: Positive Case from the Passover & Objection 1, The Passover Meal Was Unsuitable for Small Children (here)

  • PART THREE: Objection 2, Admission Required Catechesis and 3, The Language of the Text Disproves Child Participation (here)

  • PART FOUR: Objection 4, Later Attendance to Passover was Restricted to Adult Males (here)

  • PART FIVE: Objection 5, Jesus Attended Passover at the Age of Twelve (you are here)

Admittedly, there is still quite a bit more material to cover (and objections to answer) with regard to the Passover itself. But because we’ve spent so much time on this topic already, I will do my best to sum up the final points all in the next post. There, I plan to show from the word of God the Prime Connection Between Passover and the Lord’s Supper (D.V.)! 

After that, I plan to provide a positive, pro-covenant communion treatment of 1 Corinthians 10:1-4 and 1 Corinthians 10:16-17. Then, finally, I can deal with the so-called “pillar text” of 1 Corinthians 11:17-34 and bring my studies to a close.


NOTES:

[1] Interestingly, Reverend West admits that his rendering of the text is an interpretive call and not a grammatical necessity, writing in a footnote at the bottom of page 14: “Admittedly, the translation “was” may parallel the force of “became,” except that “became” is more specific and causative, implying that Jesus went up because of his twelfth birthday.”

[2] The Case for Covenant Communion, ed. Greg Strawbridge (Monroe, LA, Athanasius Press Pub., 2006), ch. 4, p 50. fn 1  

[3] The reader might be interested to know that in the 1977 R.C.U.S. committee report on Infant Communion (found here) the opening section acknowledges that for many centuries paedocommunion was the universal practice of the Christian Church:

// Infant communion was practiced in the Christian Church from the third to the eighth centuries, and in some areas as late as the twelfth century… In the twelfth century the practice was dropped due to the emergence of the doctrine of “transubstantiation” within the church //

For some reason, however, this long-standing testimony of church history and tradition is disregarded as “not germane to this present discussion.” The reason the committee gives for this is that the underlying theological basis for the historical practice was “not covenantal but sacramental or sacerdotal.” Thus, the careful reader should discern at least two things from this information:

1) Contrary to the impression we often get from anti-paedocommunionists, both parties involved in this debate are selective when it comes to the historical references they use, and yet,

2) Only one party is completely unscrupulous when it comes to its historical sources. Honestly, we should find it more than a curious thing to see the testimonies of men like Cyprian and Augustine rejected for their “bad theology” while the testimonies of unbelieving and anti-Christian sources like the Babylonian Talmud and Maimonides readily received.     

[4] This wording is taken and adapted from Tim Gallant's excellent work, Feed My Lambs : Why the Lord's Table Should Be Restored to Covenant Children, pg. 52.